this post was submitted on 18 Jul 2023
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Showerthoughts
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Because lingua franca is Latin for "French language"
From Wikipedia:
Actually Wikipedia specifically has a note at the top:
Yeah, furthermore (from Wikipedia):
So if anything, it’s (roughly) Italian, Greek, and Arabic for “language of the Western Europeans”.
Yes, because that used to be the situation back then. It's whatever language all involved parties speak. So English being a lingua franca doesn't even contain trace amounts of irony.
That's not irony. That's a coincidence.
It would actually be closer to free language.
In the past, in French there were zone, comté, royaumes (area, county, kingdom) franc(he)s. It meant they were free of the rule of the king.
Lingua franca translate into langue franche. Not langue franque because that would be the language of the francs. But at some point in time franque and franche probably were the same word.